Determine whether, for any set A, it is true that $P(bar{A})= P(U) – P(A)$

I’m currently working on a easy enough logic question, however I’m having trouble proving or disproving it’s validity. The question goes as follows:

Determine whether, for any set A, it is true that $P(bar{A})= P(U) – P(A)$
where “U” is the universal set and “P” refers to the power set.

If it is true prove it, if it is not, give a counterexample.

I can make a counterexample easily enough by assigning set values to A and U but I’m not sure how to disprove using set-builder notation or other methods etc.

Any help is greatly appreciated!