For example, if A=(B∖C) is true, the following are true:
-
∀x(x∈A→x∈B∧~x∈C)
-
∀x(x∈B∧~x∈C→x∈A)
(A=(B∖C) is just an arbitrary example; I don’t really know its truth value)
But this sounds really just like a biconditional to me, if we take
∀x(x∈A) as P
∀x(x∈B∧~x∈C) as Q
then the truth of A=(B∖C) just means P↔Q. So surely if I want to prove A=(B∖C) is false, I can treat it as ~(P↔Q), which is the same as (P→~Q)∨(Q→~P).
Could anyone confirm if I am right please?